say for eg i have a function and proc named as fun_sample and proc_sample respectivley.
why do we specify "dbo.fun_sample" for executing the function, whereas only "proc_sample" is enought for executing the proc?
For scalar function:
select dbo.fun_sample()
or
declare @.v int
set @.v = dbo.fun_sample()
For table-value function:
select * from dbo.fun_sample()
|||sorry, u have not got my question.my doubt is why we are specifying the ownername for executing a function?|||"dbo." isn't owner name, it's schema. If you use function without schema name, SQL Server think that it's system function. For stored procedures "sp_" prefix is a reason to resolving as system stored procedure.|||
firstly its a schema name or owner name, depending on the version of sql server being used...owner for 2000 and schema for 2005
for the main question...why dbo. for a function... i guess its just a syntax thing ...and it does saves time for the server... so maybe i'll use it evn if its not mandatory.... use it for sps as well....
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